UPSC Prelims · GS Paper 1 · Polity & Governance

Polity & Governance: Prelims PYQs with answers

187 questions from 2013 to 2026, newest first. The 2026 answers are not yet final: UPSC releases its official key after the final result.

Q1Prelims 2026
‘X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitu-tion of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, or-ders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y’ pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:
1. (a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
2. (b) The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
3. (c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
4. (d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.
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Answer: (d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct. · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q2Prelims 2026
Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitu-tion of India:
- I. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Con-stitution of India’.
- II. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
- III. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above state-ments is correct?
1. (a) All three statements are correct.
2. (b) There is no correct statement.
3. (c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
4. (d) There is only one correct statement.
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Answer: (b) There is no correct statement. · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q3Prelims 2026
Consider the following statements about the provisions pertain-ing to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:
- 1. Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- 2. Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
- 3. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above state-ments is correct?
1. (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
2. (b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
3. (c) There is only one correct statement.
4. (d) All three statements are correct.
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Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2. · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q4Prelims 2026
Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India:
- 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
- 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a writ-ten answer.
- 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above state-ments is correct?
1. (a) All the three statements are correct.
2. (b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
3. (c) There is only one correct statement.
4. (d) There is no correct statement.
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Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement. · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q5Prelims 2026
Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parlia-ment of India:
- 1. Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
- 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
- 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be member of this Commit-tee. a Members are elected for a fixed term of 4. two years from the date they enter their office.
Which one of the following conclusions based on the above state-ments is correct?
1. (a) There are four correct statements.
2. (b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
3. (c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
4. (d) There is no correct statement.
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Answer: (d) There is no correct statement. · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q6Prelims 2026
Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?
- 1. The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
- 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
- 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 2 only · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q7Prelims 2026
Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.
Which one among the following principles of public administration. was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?
1. (a) Esprit de corps
2. (b) Equity
3. (c) Accountability
4. (d) Delegation
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Answer: (c) Accountability · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q8Prelims 2026
In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.
Consider the following statements with reference to the above:
- 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
- 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
- 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives - to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
- 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.
Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?
1. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 1 and 2 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q9Prelims 2026
Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.
What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?
- 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
- 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
- 3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 3 only · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q10Prelims 2026
Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?
- 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
- 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
- 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 1 only
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Answer: (b) 2 only · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q11Prelims 2026
Which of the following statements. about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?
- 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
- 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
- 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 only
4. (d) 2 only
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Answer: (d) 2 only · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.
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Q12Prelims 2026

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

Sl. No.	Organisation	Function	Controlling Union Ministry
1.	Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB)	To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies	Ministry of Home Affairs
2.	Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO)	To investigate complex corporate frauds	Ministry of Finance
3.	Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI)	To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy	Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

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Answer: (a) 1 · UPSC's official 2026 key is not yet released.

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Q13Prelims 2025
Consider the following pairs:
Provision in the Constitution of India: Stated under
- I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy
- II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties
- III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None
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Answer: (c) All the three
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Q14Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, if an area in a State is declared as Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule
- I. the State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration
- II. the Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II
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Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
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Q15Prelims 2025
Consider the following pairs:
State: Description
- I. Arunachal Pradesh: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks
- II. Nagaland: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act
- III. Tripura: Initially a Part ‘C’ State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None
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Answer: (c) All the three
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Q16Prelims 2025
Consider the following subjects under the Constitution of India:
- I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule
- II. Extent of the executive power of a State
- III. Conditions of the Governor’s office For a constitutional amendment with respect to which of the above, ratification by the Legislatures of not less than one-half of the States is required before presenting the bill to the President of India for assent?
1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III
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Answer: (a) I and II only
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Q17Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements:
- I. On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution.
- II. According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately.
- III. The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the then Members of The House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days’ notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III
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Answer: (c) I and III only
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Q18Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements:
- I. If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President’s decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final.
- II. There is no mention of the word ‘political party’ in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and I
4. (d) Neither I nor II
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Answer: (d) Neither I nor II
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Q19Prelims 2025
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
- I. The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his/her office.
- II. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office.
- III. Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III
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Answer: (d) I, II and III
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Q20Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements:
- I. The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion.
- II. The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II
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Answer: (a) I only
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Q21Prelims 2025
With reference to the Indian polity, consider the following statements:
- I. An Ordinance can amend any Central Act.
- II. An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right.
- III. An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III
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Answer: (c) I and III only
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Q22Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements with regard to pardoning power of the President of India:
- I. The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review.
- II. The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) I only
2. (b) II only
3. (c) Both I and II
4. (d) Neither I nor II
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Answer: (a) I only
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Q23Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements:
- I. Panchayats at the intermediate level exist in all States.
- II. To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.
- III. The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.
Which of the statements given above are not correct?
1. (a) I and II only
2. (b) II and III only
3. (c) I and III only
4. (d) I, II and III
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Answer: (d) I, II and III
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Q24Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements:
- Statement I:
In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories.
- Statement II:
In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. (a) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II explains Statement I
2. (b) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct but Statement II does not explain Statement I
3. (c) Statement I is correct but Statement II is not correct
4. (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
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Answer: (d) Statement I is not correct but Statement II is correct
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Q25Prelims 2025
Consider the following statements about Lokpal:
- I. The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India.
- II. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of the Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson.
- III. The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office as the Chairperson or Member, as the case may be.
- IV. Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) III only
2. (b) II and III
3. (c) I and IV
4. (d) None of the above statements is correct
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Answer: (a) III only
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Q26Prelims 2025
With reference to India, consider the following:
- I. The Inter-State Council
- II. The National Security Council
- III. Zonal Councils
How many of the above were established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All the three
4. (d) None
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Answer: (a) Only one
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Q27Prelims 2024
Which of the following statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct?
- 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee.
- 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha.
- 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
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Q28Prelims 2024
Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India?
- 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution.
- 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution.
- 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution.
Select the answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q29Prelims 2024
Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?
1. (a) Inter-State trade and commerce is a State subject under the State List.
2. (b) Inter-State migration is a State subject under the State List.
3. (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
4. (d) Corporation tax is a State subject under the State List.
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Answer: (c) Inter-State quarantine is a Union subject under the Union List.
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Q30Prelims 2024
Under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?
1. (a) Article 15
2. (b) Article 16
3. (c) Article 19
4. (d) Article 21
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Answer: (d) Article 21
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Q31Prelims 2024
With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration
- 1. He/She shall not preside.
- 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak.
- 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (a) 1 only
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Q32Prelims 2024
With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements:
- 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution.
- 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
- 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/ her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only
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Answer: (b) 1 and 2
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Q33Prelims 2024
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
- 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session.
- 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2
3. (c) 2 and 3
4. (d) 3 only
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Answer: (c) 2 and 3
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Q34Prelims 2024
Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’:
- 1. Provisions will come into effect from the 18th Lok Sabha.
- 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act.
- 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1,2 and 3
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1 and 3 only
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Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only
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Q35Prelims 2024
With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements:
- 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament.
- 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
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Q36Prelims 2024
How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023.
1. (a) One
2. (b) Two
3. (c) Three
4. (d) Four
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Answer: (d) Four
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Q37Prelims 2024
The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages?
- 1. Konkani
- 2. Manipuri
- 3. Nepali
- 4. Maithili
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
2. (b) 1, 2 and 4
3. (c) 1,3 and 4
4. (d) 2,3 and 4
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Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3
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Q38Prelims 2024
A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:
1. (a) a government officer prohibiting him from taking a particular action.
2. (b) the Parliament/Legislative Assembly to pass a law on Prohibition.
3. (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
4. (d) the Government prohibiting it from following an unconstitutional policy.
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Answer: (c) the lower court prohibiting continuation of proceedings in a case.
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Q39Prelims 2024
Consider the following statements:
- 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe.
- 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q40Prelims 2024
The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971, Subsequent to the amendment of NEC ACT in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members?
- 1. Governor of the Constituent State
- 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State
- 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India
- 4. The Home Minister of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1,2 and 3
2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Answer: (a) 1,2 and 3
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Q41Prelims 2023
Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day:
- Statement-I:
The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.
- Statement-II:
On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
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Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
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Q42Prelims 2023
In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?
1. (a) The principle of natural justice
2. (b) The procedure established by law
3. (c) Fair application of law
4. (d) Equality before law
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Answer: (a) The principle of natural justice
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Q43Prelims 2023
Which one of the following statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?
1. (a) It determines the objective for the making of necessary laws.
2. (b) It enables the creation of political offices and a government.
3. (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
4. (d) It secures social justice, social equality and social security
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Answer: (c) It defines and limits the powers of government.
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Q44Prelims 2023
Consider the following statements:
- 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances.
- 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to person being held for preventive detention
- 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two
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Q45Prelims 2023
Consider the following statements:
- Statement-I:
In India, prisons are managed by State Governments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons.
- Statement-II:
In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
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Q46Prelims 2023
With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements:
- 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place through an Order of the President.
- 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block.
- 3. The Chief Ministers of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two
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Q47Prelims 2023
Consider the following statements:
- 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of his/her office of President before the date of decision become invalid.
- 2. Elections for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the grounds that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place.
- 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare his/ her assent.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (d) None
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Q48Prelims 2023
Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India:
- 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislative Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College.
- 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State.
- 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala.
- 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh.
How many of the above statements are correct?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All four
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one
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Q49Prelims 2023
In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of Fundamental Rights?
1. (a) 1st Amendment
2. (b) 42nd Amendment
3. (c) 44th Amendment
4. (d) 86th Amendment
Show answer
UPSC dropped this question from the evaluation.
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Q50Prelims 2023
Consider the following statements:
- Statement-I:
The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgments that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration.
- Statement-II:
Article 335 of the Constitution of India defines the term 'efficiency of administration'.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?
1. (a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. (b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement- II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
4. (d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
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Q51Prelims 2023
With reference to India, consider the following pairs:
Action: The Act under which it is covered
- 1. Unauthorized wearing of police or military uniforms: The Official Secrets Act, 1923
- 2. Knowingly misleading or otherwise interfering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties: The Indian Evidence Act, 1872
- 3. Celebratory gunfire which can endanger the personal safety of others: The Arms (Amendment) Act, 2019
How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) All three
4. (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (b) Only two
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Q52Prelims 2023
Consider the following organizations/bodies in India:
- 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes
- 2. The National Human Rights Commission
- 3. The National Law Commission
- 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission
How many of the above are constitutional bodies?
1. (a) Only one
2. (b) Only two
3. (c) Only three
4. (d) All four
Show answer
Answer: (a) Only one
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Q53Prelims 2022
If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it?
1. (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
2. (b) This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
3. (c) This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
4. (d) The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.
Show answer
Answer: (a) This would prevent the transfer of land of tribal people to non-tribal people.
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Q54Prelims 2022
With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements:
- 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix.
- 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party.
- 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings.
- 4. The well established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 1, 2 and 3
3. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 2 and 4 only
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
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Q55Prelims 2022
With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements:
- 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
- 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q56Prelims 2022
Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha?
- 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency
- 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers
- 3. To impeach the President of India
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q57Prelims 2022
Consider the following statements:
- 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the President of India.
- 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent.
- 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1,2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
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Q58Prelims 2022
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister.
- 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q59Prelims 2022
With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements:
- 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private. organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty.
- 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company.
- 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q60Prelims 2022
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
- 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q61Prelims 2022
Consider the following statements:
- 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed.
- 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves.
- 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt.
- 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 1, 2 and 4
3. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4
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Q62Prelims 2022
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization.
- 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q63Prelims 2022
With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements:
- 1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
- 2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
- 3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
- 4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3
2. (b) 2 and 4
3. (c) 3 and 4
4. (d) 1 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1 and 4
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Q64Prelims 2022
Consider the following statements:
- 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India.
- 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q65Prelims 2021
We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model?
- 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited.
- 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of the Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
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Q66Prelims 2021
Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?
1. (a) A committed judiciary
2. (b) Centralization of powers
3. (c) Elected government
4. (d) Separation of powers
Show answer
Answer: (d) Separation of powers
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Q67Prelims 2021
What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?
1. (a) A Democratic Republic
2. (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
3. (c) A Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic
4. (d) A Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
Show answer
Answer: (b) A Sovereign Democratic Republic
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Q68Prelims 2021
Constitutional government means
1. (a) a representative government of a nation with federal structure
2. (b) a government whose Head enjoys nominal powers
3. (c) a government whose Head enjoys real powers
4. (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
Show answer
Answer: (d) a government limited by the terms of the Constitution
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Q69Prelims 2021
Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates
1. (a) the Right to Equality
2. (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. (c) the Right to Freedom
4. (d) the Concept of Welfare
Show answer
Answer: (b) the Directive Principles of State Policy
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Q70Prelims 2021
What is the position of the Right to Property in India?
1. (a) Legal right available to citizens only
2. (b) Legal right available to any person
3. (c) Fundamental Right available to citizens only
4. (d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Show answer
Answer: (b) Legal right available to any person
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Q71Prelims 2021
‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?
1. (a) Article 15
2. (b) Article 19
3. (c) Article 21
4. (d) Article 29
Show answer
Answer: (c) Article 21
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Q72Prelims 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile.
- 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State.
- 3. A foreigner once granted citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3
4. (d) 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
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Q73Prelims 2021
Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?
1. (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
2. (b) A politically organized people of a definite territory and possessing an authority to govern them, maintain law and order, protect their natural rights and safeguard their means of sustenance
3. (c) A number of persons who have been living in a definite territory for a very long time with their own culture, tradition and government
4. (d) A society permanently living in a definite territory with a central authority, an executive responsible to the central authority and an independent judiciary
Show answer
Answer: (a) A community of persons permanently occupying a definite territory independent of external control and possessing an organized government
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Q74Prelims 2021
Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?
1. (a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
2. (b) The Union Legislature has elected representatives from constituent units.
3. (c) The Union Cabinet can have elected representatives from regional parties.
4. (d) The Fundamental Rights are enforceable by Courts of Law.
Show answer
Answer: (a) The independence of the judiciary is safeguarded.
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Q75Prelims 2021
Consider the following statements:
- 1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard.
- 2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city.
- 3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 2
4. (d) 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 2 and 3
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Q76Prelims 2021
A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?
1. (a) Article 14
2. (b) Article 28
3. (c) Article 32
4. (d) Article 44
Show answer
Answer: (a) Article 14
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Q77Prelims 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
- 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q78Prelims 2021
With reference to India, consider the following statements:
- 1. When a prisoner makes out a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/ her right.
- 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q79Prelims 2021
With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements:
- 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India.
- 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is /are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
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Q80Prelims 2021
With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:
- 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it.
- 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q81Prelims 2021
At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?
1. (a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
2. (b) Ministry of Panchayati Raj
3. (c) Ministry of Rural Development
4. (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Show answer
Answer: (d) Ministry of Tribal Affairs
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Q82Prelims 2021
Consider the following statements in respect of Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards:
- 1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titles under the Article 18 (1) of the Constitution of India.
- 2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
- 3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.
Which of the above statements are not correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q83Prelims 2020
A Constitutional government by definition is a
1. (a) government by legislature
2. (b) popular government
3. (c) multi-party government
4. (d) limited government
Show answer
Answer: (d) limited government
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Q84Prelims 2020
Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)?
- 1. Preamble
- 2. Directive Principles of State Policy
- 3. Fundamental Duties
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q85Prelims 2020
Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporates protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?
1. (a) Right against Exploitation
2. (b) Right to Freedom
3. (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
4. (d) Right to Equality
Show answer
Answer: (d) Right to Equality
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Q86Prelims 2020
Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of a Welfare State?
1. (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
2. (b) Fundamental Rights
3. (c) Preamble
4. (d) Seventh Schedule
Show answer
Answer: (a) Directive Principles of State Policy
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Q87Prelims 2020
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy.
- 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the ‘citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q88Prelims 2020
One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is
1. (a) the final goal of a stateless society
2. (b) class struggle
3. (c) abolition of private property
4. (d) economic determinism
Show answer
Answer: (a) the final goal of a stateless society
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Q89Prelims 2020
The Preamble to the Constitution of India is
1. (a) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect
2. (b) not a part of the Constitution and has no legal effect either
3. (c) a part of the Constitution and has the same legal effect as any other part
4. (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
Show answer
Answer: (d) a part of the Constitution but has no legal effect independently of other parts
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Q90Prelims 2020
With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. They shall be enforceable by courts.
- 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court.
- 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the state.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (d) 2 and 3 only
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Q91Prelims 2020
Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by
1. (a) Long standing parliamentary convention
2. (b) Article 112 and Article 110 (1) of the Constitution of India
3. (c) Article 113 of the Constitution of India
4. (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
Show answer
Answer: (d) Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003
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Q92Prelims 2020
A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which
1. (a) all political parties in the Parliament are represented in the Government
2. (b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
3. (c) the Government is elected by the people and can be removed by them.
4. (d) the Government is chosen by the Parliament but cannot be removed by it before completion of a fixed-term
Show answer
Answer: (b) the Government is responsible to the Parliament and can be removed by it
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Q93Prelims 2020
Consider the following statements:
- 1. According to the Constitution of India, a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a state for six months even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that state.
- 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q94Prelims 2020
Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in
1. (a) the matter of creating new All India Services
2. (b) amending the Constitution
3. (c) the removal of the government
4. (d) making cut motions
Show answer
Answer: (b) amending the Constitution
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Q95Prelims 2020
In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?
1. (a) An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy
2. (b) An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism
3. (c) Political An agency for facilitating stability and economic growth
4. (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
Show answer
Answer: (d) An agency for the implementation of public policy
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Q96Prelims 2020
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The President of India can summon a session of Parliament at such a place as he/she thinks fit.
- 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions.
- 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
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Q97Prelims 2020
In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by
1. (a) the Preamble of the Constitution
2. (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
3. (c) the Seventh Schedule
4. (d) the conventional practice
Show answer
Answer: (b) a Directive Principle of State Policy
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Q98Prelims 2020
With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct?
- 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc.
- 2. A specified portion of each MP's fund must benefit SC/ST populations.
- 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on a yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year.
- 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 4 only
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Q99Prelims 2020
Consider the following statements:
- 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months.
- 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhar data.
- 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products.
- 4. Aadhar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated fund of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 4 only
2. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 only
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Answer: (b) 2 and 4 only
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Q100Prelims 2020
In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following types of citizens?
- 1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000
- 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000
- 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000
- 4. All Senior Citizens
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1 and 4 only
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Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
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Q101Prelims 2019
In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?
1. (a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers
2. (b) Absence of restraints
3. (c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes
4. (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
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Answer: (d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully
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Q102Prelims 2019
Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?
1. (a) Third Schedule
2. (b) Fifth Schedule
3. (c) Ninth Schedule
4. (d) Twelfth Schedule
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Answer: (b) Fifth Schedule
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Q103Prelims 2019
The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of:
1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
2. (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
3. (c) Indira Gandhi
4. (d) Morarji Desai
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Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
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Q104Prelims 2019
Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?
1. (a) Article 19
2. (b) Article 21
3. (c) Article 25
4. (d) Article 29
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Answer: (b) Article 21
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Q105Prelims 2019
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
- 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
- 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
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Q106Prelims 2019
With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:
- 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
- 2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
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Q107Prelims 2019
Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?
1. (a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. (b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)
3. (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. (d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)
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Answer: (c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)
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Q108Prelims 2019
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act 1968.
- 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details or what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
- 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
- 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
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Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only
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Q109Prelims 2019
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
- 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q110Prelims 2019
With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?
1. (a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.
2. (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.
3. (c) In the event of a grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare a Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.
4. (d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of the Union Legislature.
Show answer
Answer: (b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by the laws made by Parliament.
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Q111Prelims 2019
With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:
- 1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
- 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q112Prelims 2019
In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?
- 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
- 2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
- 3. Finance Commission
- 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
- 5. NITI Aayog
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
4. (d) 2 and 5 only
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Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
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Q113Prelims 2018
Which one of the following reflects the most appropriate relationship between law and liberty?
1. (a) If there are more laws, there is less liberty.
2. (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
3. (c) If there is liberty, laws have to be made by the people.
4. (d) If laws are changed too often, liberty is in danger.
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Answer: (b) If there are no laws, there is no liberty.
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Q114Prelims 2018
Which of the following are regarded as the main feature of “Rule of Law”?
- 1. Limitation of power
- 2. Equality before the law
- 3. People’s responsibility to the Government
- 4. Liberty and civil rights
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
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Q115Prelims 2018
Consider the following statements:
- 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party.
- 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969.
- 3. In the Lok Sabha, if the party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the leader of opposition.
Which of the following statements given is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q116Prelims 2018
Consider the following statements:
- 1. Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
- 2. The validity of law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no Judgement can be made on it.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 2 only
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
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Q117Prelims 2018
With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinises and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executives within the scope of such delegation?
1. (a) Committee on Government Assurances
2. (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
3. (c) Committee on rules
4. (d) Business Advisory Committee
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Answer: (b) Committee on Subordinate Legislation
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Q118Prelims 2018
Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?
1. (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd amendment to the Constitution.
2. (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principle of the State Policy in Part IV
3. (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
4. (d) Article 24 and provisions under the 44th Amendments to the Constitution
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Answer: (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III
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Q119Prelims 2018
Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?
1. (a) A bill shall be deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions related to imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or regulation of any tax.
2. (b) A Money Bill has the provisions for the custody of the Consolidated Fund of India or the Contingency Fund of India.
3. (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
4. (d) A Money Bill deals with the regulations of borrowings of money or giving of any guarantee by the Government of India.
Show answer
Answer: (c) A Money Bill is concerned with the appropriation of money out of the Contingency Fund of India.
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Q120Prelims 2018
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly.
- 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her office immediately.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
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Q121Prelims 2018
With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements:
- 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State.
- 2. The value of vote of MPs in Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
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Q122Prelims 2018
Consider the following statements:
- 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
- 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a state shall not be diminished during his term of office.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
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Q123Prelims 2018
If the president of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the constitution in respect of a particular state, then
1. (a) the assembly of a state is automatically dissolved.
2. (b) the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
3. (c) Article 19 is suspended in that State.
4. (d) the President can make laws relating to that State.
Show answer
Answer: (b) the power of the Legislature of that State shall be exercisable by or under the authority of the Parliament.
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Q124Prelims 2017
Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity
1. (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
2. (b) the methods for strengthening executive leadership.
3. (c) a superior individual with dynamism and vision.
4. (d) a band of dedicated party workers
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Answer: (a) the intelligence and character of ordinary men and women.
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Q125Prelims 2017
The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?
1. (a) The Preamble
2. (b) The Fundamental Rights
3. (c) The Directive Principles of State Policy
4. (d) The Fundamental Duties
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Answer: (a) The Preamble
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Q126Prelims 2017
Right to vote and to be elected in India is a
1. (a) Fundamental Right
2. (b) Natural Right
3. (c) Constitutional Right
4. (d) Legal Right
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Answer: (c) Constitutional Right
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Q127Prelims 2017
Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
- 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour
- 2. Abolition of untouchability
- 3. Protection of the interests of minorities
- 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1, 2 and 4 only
2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 1 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 4 only
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Q128Prelims 2017
Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?
1. (a) There is an independent judiciary in India.
2. (b) Powers have been clearly divided between the Centre and the States.
3. (c) The federating units have been given unequal representation in the Rajya Sabha.
4. (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
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Answer: (d) It is the result of an agreement among the federating units.
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Q129Prelims 2017
Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen?
- 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties.
- 2. They are correlative to legal duties.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q130Prelims 2017
Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?
1. (a) Liberty of thought
2. (b) Economic liberty
3. (c) Liberty of expression
4. (d) Liberty of belief
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Answer: (b) Economic liberty
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Q131Prelims 2017
In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?
1. (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
2. (b) Rights are personal and hence independent of society and Duties.
3. (c) Rights, not Duties, are important for the advancement of the personality of the citizen.
4. (d) Duties, not Rights, are important for the stability of the State.
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Answer: (a) Rights are correlative with Duties.
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Q132Prelims 2017
One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of
1. (a) Privileges
2. (b) Restraints
3. (c) Competition
4. (d) Ideology
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Answer: (a) Privileges
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Q133Prelims 2017
Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?
1. (a) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
2. (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
3. (c) Right to work, education and public assistance
4. (d) Securing living wage and human conditions of work to workers
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Answer: (b) Participation of workers in the management of industries
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Q134Prelims 2017
Consider the following statements:
With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitute limitations upon
- 1. legislative function.
- 2. executive function.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q135Prelims 2017
Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. (a) Rights are claims of the State against the citizens.
2. (b) Rights are privileges that are incorporated in the Constitution of a State.
3. (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
4. (d) Rights are privileges of a few citizens against the many.
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Answer: (c) Rights are claims of the citizens against the State.
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Q136Prelims 2017
Consider the following statements:
- 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 per cent of the votes polled to be declared elected.
- 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker's post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q137Prelims 2017
Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government:
1. (a) An arrangement for minimising criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
2. (b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
3. (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
4. (d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Show answer
Answer: (c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
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Q138Prelims 2017
With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements:
- 1. A private member's bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
- 2. Recently, a private member's bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q139Prelims 2017
For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by
1. (a) anyone residing in India.
2. (b) a resident of the constituency from which the election is to be contested.
3. (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
4. (d) any citizen of India.
Show answer
Answer: (c) any citizen of India whose name appears in the electoral roll of a constituency.
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Q140Prelims 2017
Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President's rule in a State?
- 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly
- 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State
- 3. Dissolution of the local bodies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
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Q141Prelims 2017
The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through
- 1. Adjournment motion
- 2. Question hour
- 3. Supplementary questions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q142Prelims 2017
In India, Judicial Review implies
1. (a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the Constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
2. (b) The power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures.
3. (c) The power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President.
4. (d) The power of the Judiciary to review its own judgements given earlier in similar or different cases.
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Answer: (a) The power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the Constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
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Q143Prelims 2017
Local self-government can be best explained as an exercise in
1. (a) Federalism
2. (b) Democratic decentralisation
3. (c) Administrative delegation
4. (d) Direct democracy
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Answer: (b) Democratic decentralisation
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Q144Prelims 2017
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
- 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and by-elections.
- 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/ mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (d) 3 only
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Q145Prelims 2016
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation.
- 2. A bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q146Prelims 2016
The Parliament of India acquires the powers to legislate on any items in the State List in the national interest if the resolution to that effect has been passed by the
1. (a) Lok Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
2. (b) Lok Sabha by a majority of not less than two-thirds of its total membership
3. (c) Rajya Sabha by a simple majority of its total membership
4. (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two- thirds of its members present and voting
Show answer
Answer: (d) Rajya Sabha by a majority of not less than two- thirds of its members present and voting
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Q147Prelims 2016
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
- 2. The Chief Secretary in a state has a fixed tenure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q148Prelims 2016
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of a panchayat is 25 years.
- 2. A panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q149Prelims 2016
With reference to “Gram Nyayalayas Acts”, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases.
- 2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/conciliators.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q150Prelims 2015
The ideal of “Welfare State” in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its
1. (a) Preamble
2. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
3. (c) Fundamental Rights
4. (d) Seventh Schedule
Show answer
Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
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Q151Prelims 2015
“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the
1. (a) Preamble of the Constitute
2. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
3. (c) Fundamental Rights
4. (d) Fundamental Duties
Show answer
Answer: (d) Fundamental Duties
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Q152Prelims 2015
The provisions in the Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to
1. (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
2. (b) determine the boundaries between states
3. (c) determine the powers, authorities, and responsibilities of Panchayats
4. (d) protect the interests of all the border States
Show answer
Answer: (a) protect the interests of Scheduled Tribes
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Q153Prelims 2015
Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy:
- 1. The Principles spell out the socio-economic democracy in the country.
- 2. The provisions contained in these Principles are not enforceable by any court.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
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Q154Prelims 2015
There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the
1. (a) Lok Sabha is elected directly by the people
2. (b) Parliament can amend the Constitution
3. (c) Rajya Sabha cannot be dissolved
4. (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
Show answer
Answer: (d) Council of Ministers is responsible to the Lok Sabha
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Q155Prelims 2015
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Legislative Council of a State in India can be larger in size than half of the Legislative Assembly of that particular State.
- 2. The Governor of a State nominates the Chairman of the Legislative Council of that particular State.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q156Prelims 2015
When a bill is referred to a joint sitting both the Houses of the Parliament, has to be passed by
1. (a) a simple majority of member present and voting
2. (b) three-fourths majority of member present and voting
3. (c) two-thirds majority of the House
4. (d) absolute majority of the House
Show answer
Answer: (a) a simple majority of member present and voting
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Q157Prelims 2015
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Rajya Sabha has no power either to reject or to amend a Money Bill.
- 2. The Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the Demands for Grants.
- 3. The Rajya Sabha cannot discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 1 and 2 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
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Q158Prelims 2015
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Executive Power of the Union of India is vested in the Prime Minister.
- 2. The Prime Minister is the ex officio Chairman of the Civil Services Board.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q159Prelims 2015
Who/which of the following is the Custodian of the Constitution of India?
1. (a) The President of India
2. (b) The Prime Minister of India
3. (c) The Lok Sabha Secretariat
4. (d) The Supreme Court of India
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Answer: (d) The Supreme Court of India
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Q160Prelims 2015
The fundamental object of the Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?
- 1. People’s participation in development
- 2. Political accountability
- 3. Democratic decentralisation
- 4. Financial mobilisation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
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Q161Prelims 2014
Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which
- 1. A Constitutional Government is one which places the effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
- 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q162Prelims 2014
In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the:
1. (a) Preamble of the Constitution
2. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
3. (c) Fundamental Duties
4. (d) Ninth Schedule
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Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
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Q163Prelims 2014
Which one of the Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the anti-defection?
1. (a) Second Schedule
2. (b) Fifth Schedule
3. (c) Eighth Schedule
4. (d) Tenth Schedule
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Answer: (d) Tenth Schedule
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Q164Prelims 2014
Which of the following committees is the largest Committee of the Parliament?
1. (a) The Committee on Public Accounts
2. (b) The Committee on Estimates
3. (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
4. (d) The Committee on Petitions
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Answer: (b) The Committee on Estimates
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Q165Prelims 2014
Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:
- 1. There is no mention of No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
- 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
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Q166Prelims 2014
Which of the following is/are the functions/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?
- 1. Preparations of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
- 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Meetings
- 3. Allocations of financial resources to the Ministers
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 2 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only
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Q167Prelims 2014
Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State?
- 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.
- 2. Appointing the Ministers.
- 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.
- 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.
Select the answers using the codes given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 1 and 3 only
3. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
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Q168Prelims 2014
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
- 2. All executive actions of the government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (a) 1 only
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Q169Prelims 2014
The power to increase the number of Judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in
1. (a) The President of India
2. (b) The Parliament
3. (c) The Chief Justice of India
4. (d) The Law Commission
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Answer: (b) The Parliament
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Q170Prelims 2014
The power of Supreme Court of India to decide dispute between the centre and states fall under its:
1. (a) Advisory jurisdiction
2. (b) Appellate jurisdiction
3. (c) Original jurisdiction
4. (d) Writ jurisdiction
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Answer: (c) Original jurisdiction
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Q171Prelims 2013
‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of Indian Constitution has been provided in
1. (a) The Preamble and Fundamental Rights
2. (b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
3. (c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
4. (d) None of the above
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Answer: (b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
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Q172Prelims 2013
According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
1. (a) Fundamental Rights
2. (b) Fundamental Duties
3. (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
4. (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
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Answer: (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
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Q173Prelims 2013
Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)
- 1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
- 2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of Government.
- 3. Examine the report of CAG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
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Q174Prelims 2013
In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
- 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
- 3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 3 only
3. (c) 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
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Q175Prelims 2013
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the Members of that House.
- 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the Presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (b) 2 only
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Q176Prelims 2013
What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
1. (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
2. (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
3. (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
4. (d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
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Answer: (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
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Q177Prelims 2013
Consider the following statements:
- 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Q178Prelims 2013
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties
1. (a) with the consent of all the States
2. (b) with the consent of the majority of States
3. (c) with the consent of the States concerned
4. (d) without the consent of any State
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Answer: (d) without the consent of any State
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Q179Prelims 2013
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Select the correct answer using the given code below:
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
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Q180Prelims 2013
Which one of the following statements is correct?
1. (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.
2. (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
3. (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.
4. (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
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Answer: (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.
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Q181Prelims 2013
The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
1. (a) To provide self-governance
2. (b) To recognize traditional rights
3. (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
4. (d) To free tribal people from exploitation
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Answer: (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
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Q182Prelims 2013
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
1. (a) State Forest Department
2. (b) District Collector/ Deputy Commissioner
3. (c) Tahsildar/ Block Development Officer/ Mandal Revenue Officer
4. (d) Gram Sabha
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Answer: (d) Gram Sabha
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Q183Prelims 2013
Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can
- 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- 2. be a member of a Committee of the Lok Sabha
- 3. speak in the Lok Sabha
- 4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 4 only
3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
4. (d) 1 and 3 only
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Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
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Q184Prelims 2013
Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
- 1. National Development Council
- 2. Planning Commission
- 3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
1. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Q185Prelims 2013
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
- 1. The Prime Minister
- 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
- 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- 4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
1. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
3. (c) 2 and 4 only
4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
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Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
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Q186Prelims 2013
Consider the following statements:
- 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent
List in the Constitution of India.
- 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 and 3 only
3. (c) 1 and 3 only
4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
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Q187Prelims 2013
With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
- 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. (a) 1 only
2. (b) 2 only
3. (c) Both 1 and 2
4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
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