UPSC CSE Prelims 2013 · GS Paper 1
Prelims 2013 questions with answer key
100 questions, grouped by subject (not in the exam booklet's order). Attempt each one before tapping "Show answer".
Ancient India
Q1
Which of the following characterises/characterise the people of the Indus Civilization?
- 1. They possessed great palaces and temples.
- 2. They worshipped both male and female deities.
- 3. They employed horse-drawn chariots in warfare.
Select the correct statement/statements using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None of the statements given above is correct
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
Q2
Which one of the following describes best the concept of Nirvana in Buddhism?
- (a) The extinction of the flame of desire
- (b) The complete annihilation of self
- (c) A state of bliss and rest
- (d) A mental stage beyond all comprehension
Show answer
Answer: (a) The extinction of the flame of desire
Q3
Which of the following statements is/are applicable to Jain doctrine?
- 1. The surest way of annihilating Karma is to practice penance.
- 2. Every object, even the smallest particle, has a soul.
- 3. Karma is the bane of the soul and must be ended.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q4
The Chinese traveller Yuan Chwang (Hiuen Tsang) who visited India recorded the general conditions and culture of India at that time. In this context, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. The roads and river routes were completely immune from robbery.
- 2. As regards punishment for offences, ordeals by fire, water, and poison were the instruments for determining the innocence or guilt of a person.
- 3. The tradesmen had to pay duties at ferries and barrier stations.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Modern India
Q5
Annie Besant was:
- 1. Responsible for starting the Home Rule Movement.
- 2. The founder of the Theosophical Society.
- 3. Once the President of the Indian National Congress.
Select the correct statement/statements using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Q6
The Ilbert Bill controversy was related to the
- (a) imposition of certain restrictions to carry arms by the Indians.
- (b) imposition of restrictions on newspapers and magazines published in Indian languages.
- (c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian Magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans.
- (d) removal of a duty on imported cotton cloth.
Show answer
Answer: (c) removal of disqualifications imposed on the Indian Magistrates with regard to the trial of the Europeans.
Q7
The people of India agitated against the arrival of the Simon Commission because
- (a) Indians never wanted the review of the working of the Act of 1919
- (b) Simon Commission recommended the abolition of Dyarchy (Diarchy) in the provinces
- (c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
- (d) the Simon Commission suggested the partition of the country
Show answer
Answer: (c) there was no Indian member in the Simon Commission
Q8
The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant Movement in Bengal was for
- (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
- (b) the grant of ownership of land to peasants as they were the actual cultivators of the land
- (c) the uprooting of Zamindari system and the end of serfdom
- (d) writing off all peasant debts
Show answer
Answer: (a) the reduction of the share of the landlords from one-half of the crop to one-third
Q9
Quit India Movement was launched in response to
- (a) Cabinet Mission Plan
- (b) Cripps Proposals
- (c) Simon Commission Report
- (d) Wavell Plan
Show answer
Answer: (b) Cripps Proposals
Q10
With reference to Indian History, the Member of the Constituent Assembly from the provinces were
- (a) Directly elected by the people of those provinces
- (b) Nominated by the Indian National Congress and the Muslim league
- (c) Elected by Provincial Legislative Assemblies
- (d) Selected by the Government for their expertise in constitutional matters.
Show answer
Answer: (c) Elected by Provincial Legislative Assemblies
Art & Culture
Q11
With reference to the history of Indian rock-cut architecture, consider the following statements:
- 1. The caves at Badami are the oldest surviving rock-cut caves in India.
- 2. The Barabar rock-cut caves were originally made for Ajivikas by Emperor Chandragupta Maurya.
- 3. At Ellora, caves were made for different faiths.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 3 only
Q12
Some Buddhist rock-cut caves are called Chaityas, while others are called Viharas. What is the difference between the two?
- (a) Vihara is a place of worship, while Chaitya is the dwelling place of the monks
- (b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
- (c) Chaitya is the stupa at the far end of the cave, while Vihara is the hall axial to it
- (d) There is no material difference between the two
Show answer
Answer: (b) Chaitya is a place of worship, while Vihara is the dwelling place of the monks
Q13
In the context of cultural history of India, a pose in dance and dramatics called 'Tribhanga' has been a favourite of Indian artists from ancient times till today. Which one of the following statements best describes this pose?
- (a) One leg is bent, and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
- (b) Facial expressions, hand gestures and make-up are combined to symbolise certain epic or historic characters
- (c) Movements of body, face and hands are used to express oneself or to tell a story
- (d) A little smile, slightly curved waist and certain hand gestures are emphasised to express the feelings of love or eroticism
Show answer
Answer: (a) One leg is bent, and the body is slightly but oppositely curved at waist and neck
Q14
Consider the following historical places:
- 1. Ajanta Caves
- 2. Lepakshi Temple
- 3. Sanchi Stupa
Which of the above places is/are also known for mural paintings?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only
Q15
Consider the following Bhakti Saints:
- 1. Dadu Dayal
- 2. Guru Nanak
- 3. Tyagaraja Who among the above was/were preaching when the Lodi dynasty fell, and Babur took over?
- (a) 1 and 3
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 2 only
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
Q16
With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school:
- 1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of soul.
- 2. Sankhya holds that it is the self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
World Geography
Q17
Variations in the length of daytime and night-time from season to season are due to
- (a) the earth’s rotation on its axis
- (b) the earth’s revolution around the sun in an elliptical manner
- (c) latitudinal position of the place
- (d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
Show answer
Answer: (d) revolution of the earth on a tilted axis
Q18
Consider the following:
- 1. Electromagnetic radiation
- 2. Geothermal energy
- 3. Gravitational force
- 4. Plate movements
- 5. Rotation of the earth
- 6. Revolution of the earth
Which of the above are responsible for bringing dynamic changes on the surface of the earth?
- (a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
- (b) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
- (c) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
Q19
During a thunderstorm, the thunder in the skies is produced by the
- 1. Meeting of cumulonimbus clouds in the sky.
- 2. Lightning that separates the nimbus clouds.
- 3. Violent upward movement of air and water particles.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) None of the above produces the thunder
Show answer
Answer: (d) None of the above produces the thunder
Q20
The annual range of temperature in the interior of the continents is high as compared to coastal areas. What is/are the reason/ reasons?
- 1. Thermal difference between land and water
- 2. Variation in altitude between continents and oceans
- 3. Presence of strong winds in the interior
- 4. Heavy rains in the interior as compared to coasts
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
Q21
On the planet earth, most of the freshwater exists as ice caps and glaciers. Out of the remaining freshwater, the largest proportion
- (a) is bound in atmosphere as moisture and clouds
- (b) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
- (c) exists as groundwater
- (d) exists as soil moisture
Show answer
Answer: (c) exists as groundwater
Q22
The most important fishing grounds of the world are found in the regions where
- (a) Warm and cold atmospheric currents meet
- (b) Rivers drain out large amounts of freshwater into the sea
- (c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet
- (d) Continental shelf is undulating
Show answer
Answer: (c) Warm and cold oceanic currents meet
Q23
Which of the following leaf modifications occurs/occur in desert areas to inhibit water loss?
- 1. Hard and waxy leaves
- 2. Tiny leaves or no leaves
- 3. Thorns instead of leaves
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q24
“Climate is extreme, rainfall is scanty, and the people used to be nomadic herders.” The above statement best describes which of the following regions?
- (a) African Savannah
- (b) Central Asian Steppe
- (c) North American Prairie
- (d) Siberian Tundra
Show answer
Answer: (b) Central Asian Steppe
Q25
Which of the following is/are unique characteristics / characteristics of equatorial forests?
- 1. Presence of tall, closely set trees with crowns forming a continuous canopy
- 2. Coexistence of a large number of species
- 3. Presence of numerous varieties of epiphytes
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q26
Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (Geographical feature : Region)
- (a) Abyssinian Plateau : Arabia
- (b) Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa
- (c) Guiana Highlands : South-Western Africa
- (d) Okavango Basin : Patagonia
Show answer
Answer: (b) Atlas Mountains : North-Western Africa
Indian Geography
Q27
The Narmada River flows to the west, while most other large peninsular rivers flow to the east. Why?
- 1. It occupies a linear rift valley.
- 2. It flows between the Vindhyas and the Satpuras.
- 3. The land slopes to the west from Central India.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
Q28
Contour bunding is a method of soil conservation used in
- (a) desert margins, liable to strong wind action
- (b) low flat plains, close to stream courses, liable to flooding
- (c) scrublands, liable to spread of weed growth
- (d) None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (d) None of the above
Q29
Which of the following statements regarding laterite soils of India are correct?
- 1. They are generally red in colour.
- 2. They are rich in nitrogen and potash.
- 3. They are well-developed in Rajasthan and UP.
- 4. Tapioca and cashew nuts grow well on these soils.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 2, 3 and 4
- (c) 1 and 4
- (d) 2 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 4
Q30
Which one among the following industries is the maximum consumer of water in India?
- (a) Engineering
- (b) Paper and pulp
- (c) Textiles
- (d) Thermal power
Show answer
Answer: (d) Thermal power
Q31
Consider the following statements:
- 1. Natural gas occurs in the Gondwana beds.
- 2. Mica occurs in abundance in Kodarma.
- 3. Dharwars are famous for petroleum.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 and 2
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3
- (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
Q32
Which of the following is/are the characteristics/characteristics of Indian coal?
- 1. High ash content
- 2. Low sulphur content
- 3. Low ash fusion temperature
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Q33
Improper handling and storage of cereal grains and oilseeds result in the production of toxins known as aflatoxins which are not generally destroyed by normal cooking process. Aflatoxins are produced by
- (a) bacteria
- (b) protozoa
- (c) moulds
- (d) viruses
Show answer
Answer: (c) moulds
Q34
Consider the following crops:
- 1. Cotton
- 2. Groundnut
- 3. Rice
- 4. Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
- (a) 1 and 4
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Q35
Consider the following pairs:
National Park River flowing through the park
1. Corbett National Park Ganga 2. Kaziranga National Park Manas 3. Silent Valley National Park Kaveri Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (d) None
Q36
Consider the following pairs:
1. Nokrek Biosphere Reserve Garo Hills 2. Logtak (Loktak) Lake Barail Range 3. Namdapha National Park Dafla Hills Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
Q37
Consider the following pairs:
Tribe State 1. Limboo (Limbu) Sikkim 2. Karbi Himachal Pradesh 3. Dongaria Kondh Odisha 4. Bonda Tamil Nadu Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only
Polity & Governance
Q38
‘Economic Justice’ as one of the objectives of Indian Constitution has been provided in
- (a) The Preamble and Fundamental Rights
- (b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
- (c) The Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy
- (d) None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (b) The Preamble and the Directive Principles of State Policy
Q39
According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?
- (a) Fundamental Rights
- (b) Fundamental Duties
- (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
- (d) Fundamental Rights and Fundamental Duties
Show answer
Answer: (c) Directive Principles of State Policy
Q40
Consider the following statements:
The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts (PAC)
- 1. Consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha.
- 2. Scrutinises appropriation and finance accounts of Government.
- 3. Examine the report of CAG.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q41
In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government?
- 1. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament.
- 2. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament.
- 3. The Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only
Q42
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the Members of that House.
- 2. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the Presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
Q43
What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?
- (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
- (b) The Lok Sabha cannot consider the Bill further
- (c) The Lok Sabha may send the Bill to the Rajya Sabha for reconsideration
- (d) The President may call a joint sitting for passing the Bill
Show answer
Answer: (a) The Lok Sabha may still proceed with the Bill, accepting or not accepting the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha
Q44
Consider the following statements:
- 1. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a Bill in the Lok Sabha only.
- 2. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the Legislature of all the States of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Q45
The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing International Treaties
- (a) with the consent of all the States
- (b) with the consent of the majority of States
- (c) with the consent of the States concerned
- (d) without the consent of any State
Show answer
Answer: (d) without the consent of any State
Q46
Consider the following statements:
- 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament.
- 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India.
- 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for legislation.
Select the correct answer using the given code below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q47
Which one of the following statements is correct?
- (a) In India, the same person cannot be appointed as Governor for two or more States at the same time.
- (b) The Judges of the High Court of the States in India are appointed by the Governor of the State just as the Judges of the Supreme Court are appointed by the President.
- (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.
- (d) In the case of a Union Territory having a legislative setup, the Chief Minister is appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of majority support.
Show answer
Answer: (c) No procedure has been laid down in the Constitution of India for the removal of a Governor from his/her post.
Q48
The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?
- (a) To provide self-governance
- (b) To recognize traditional rights
- (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
- (d) To free tribal people from exploitation
Show answer
Answer: (c) To create autonomous regions in tribal areas
Q49
Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process of determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?
- (a) State Forest Department
- (b) District Collector/ Deputy Commissioner
- (c) Tahsildar/ Block Development Officer/ Mandal Revenue Officer
- (d) Gram Sabha
Show answer
Answer: (d) Gram Sabha
Q50
Consider the following statements:
Attorney General of India can
- 1. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha
- 2. be a member of a Committee of the Lok Sabha
- 3. speak in the Lok Sabha
- 4. vote in the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1 and 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q51
Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution?
- 1. National Development Council
- 2. Planning Commission
- 3. Zonal Councils
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q52
Who among the following constitute the National Development Council?
- 1. The Prime Minister
- 2. The Chairman, Finance Commission
- 3. Ministers of the Union Cabinet
- 4. Chief Ministers of the States
Select the correct answer using the codes given below.
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 2 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
Q53
Consider the following statements:
- 1. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission.
- 2. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent
List in the Constitution of India.
- 3. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q54
With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements:
- 1. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity.
- 2. It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programs and schemes throughout the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2
Economy
Q55
Supply of money remaining the same when there is an increase in demand for money, there will be
- (a) a fall in the level of prices
- (b) an increase in the rate of interest
- (c) a decrease in the rate of interest
- (d) an increase in the level of income and employment
Show answer
Answer: (b) an increase in the rate of interest
Q56
Consider the following liquid assets:
- 1. Demand deposits with the banks
- 2. Time deposits with the banks
- 3. Savings deposits with the banks
- 4. Currency The correct sequence of these assets in the decreasing order of liquidity is
- (a) 1-4-3-2
- (b) 4-3-2-1
- (c) 2-3-1-4
- (d) 4-1-3-2
Show answer
Answer: (d) 4-1-3-2
Q57
Priority Sector Lending by banks in India constitutes the lending to:
- (a) Agriculture
- (b) micro and small enterprises
- (c) weaker sections
- (d) All of the above
Show answer
Answer: (d) All of the above
Q58
In the context of Indian economy, ‘Open Market Operations’ refers to:
- (a) borrowing by scheduled banks from the RBI
- (b) lending by commercial banks to industry and trade
- (c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
- (d) None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (c) purchase and sale of government securities by the RBI
Q59
An increase in the Bank Rate generally indicates that the
- (a) Market rate of interest is likely to fall
- (b) Central Bank is no longer making loans to commercial banks
- (c) Central Bank is following an easy money policy
- (d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Show answer
Answer: (d) Central Bank is following a tight money policy
Q60
The Reserve Bank of India regulates the commercial banks in matters of:
- 1. liquidity of assets
- 2. branch expansion
- 3. merger of banks
- 4. winding-up of banks
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 4 only
- (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Q61
Which of the following grants/grant direct credit assistance to rural households?
- 1. Regional Rural Banks
- 2. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
- 3. Land Development Banks.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Q62
The Balance of Payments of a country is a systematic record of
- (a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
- (b) goods exported from a country during a year
- (c) economic transaction between the government of one country to another
- (d) capital movements from one country to another
Show answer
Answer: (a) all import and export transactions of a country during a given period of time, normally a year
Q63
Which of the following constitute Capital Account?
- 1. Foreign Loans
- 2. Foreign Direct Investment
- 3. Private Remittances
- 4. Portfolio Investment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
- (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
Q64
Which one of the following groups of items is included in India’s foreign – exchange reserves?
- (a) Foreign – currency assets, Special Drawing Rights (SDRs) and loans from foreign countries.
- (b) Foreign – currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs.
- (c) Foreign – currency assets, loans from the World Bank and SDRs.
- (d) Foreign – currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and loans from the World Bank.
Show answer
Answer: (b) Foreign – currency assets, gold holdings of the RBI and SDRs.
Q65
Disguised unemployment generally means:
- (a) large number of people remain unemployed
- (b) alternative employment is not available
- (c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
- (d) productivity of workers is low
Show answer
Answer: (c) marginal productivity of labour is zero
Q66
Economic growth in country X will necessarily have to occur if
- (a) there is technical progress in the world economy
- (b) there is population growth in X
- (c) there is capital formation in X
- (d) the volume of trade grows in the world economy
Show answer
Answer: (c) there is capital formation in X
Q67
The National Income of a country for a given period is equal to the:
- (a) Total value of goods and services produced by the nationals.
- (b) Sum of total consumption and investment expenditure.
- (c) Sum of personal income of all individuals.
- (d) Money value of final goods and services produced.
Show answer
Answer: (d) Money value of final goods and services produced.
Q68
A rise in general level of prices may be caused by
- 1. an increase in the money supply
- 2. a decrease in the aggregate level of output
- 3. an increase in the effective demand
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q69
Which one of the following is likely to be the most inflationary in its effect?
- (a) Repayment of public debt
- (b) Borrowing from the public to finance a budget deficit
- (c) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget deficit
- (d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Show answer
Answer: (d) Creating new money to finance a budget deficit
Q70
Consider the following statements:
- 1. Inflation benefits the debtors.
- 2. Inflation benefits the bondholders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) Both 1 and 2
- (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
Q71
In India, deficit financing is used for raising resources for:
- (a) economic development
- (b) redemption of public debt
- (c) adjusting the balance of payments
- (d) reducing the foreign debt
Show answer
Answer: (a) economic development
Q72
To obtain the full benefits of demographic dividend, what should India do?
- (a) Promoting skill development
- (b) Introducing more social security schemes
- (c) Reducing infant mortality rate
- (d) Privatisation of higher education
Show answer
Answer: (a) Promoting skill development
Environment & Ecology
Q73
With reference to the food chains in ecosystems, which of the following kinds of organism is/are known as decomposer organism/organisms?
- 1. Virus
- 2. Fungi
- 3. Bacteria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q74
In the grasslands, trees do not replace the grasses as a part of an ecological succession because of
- (a) insects and fungi
- (b) limited sunlight and paucity of nutrients
- (c) water limits and fire
- (d) None of the above
Show answer
Answer: (c) water limits and fire
Q75
Which one of the following is the correct sequence of ecosystems in the order of decreasing productivity?
- (a) Oceans, lakes, grasslands, mangroves
- (b) Mangroves, oceans, grasslands, lakes
- (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
- (d) Oceans, mangroves, lakes, grasslands
Show answer
Answer: (c) Mangroves, grasslands, lakes, oceans
Q76
Due to improper/indiscriminate disposal of old and used computers or their parts, which of the following are released into the environment as e-waste?
- 1. Beryllium
- 2. Cadmium
- 3. Chromium
- 4. Heptachlor
- 5. Mercury
- 6. Lead
- 7. Plutonium
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 3, 4, 6, and 7 only
- (b) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
- (c) 2, 4, 5, and 7 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1, 2, 3, 5, and 6 only
Q77
Acid rain is caused by the pollution of environment by
- (a) carbon dioxide and nitrogen
- (b) carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
- (c) ozone and carbon dioxide
- (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Show answer
Answer: (d) nitrous oxide and sulphur dioxide
Q78
With reference to food chains in ecosystems, consider the following statements:
- 1. A food chain illustrates the order in which a chain of organisms feeds upon each other.
- 2. Food chains are found within the populations of a species.
- 3. A food chain illustrates the numbers of each organism that are eaten by others.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 2 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
Q79
Which of the following adds/add nitrogen to the soil?
- 1. Excretion of urea by animals
- 2. Burning of coal by man
- 3. Death of vegetation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Q80
Which one of the following terms describes not only the physical space occupied by an organism but also its functional role in the community of organisms?
- (a) Ecotone
- (b) Ecological niche
- (c) Habitat
- (d) Home range
Show answer
Answer: (b) Ecological niche
Q81
Which of the following can be found as pollutants in the drinking water in some parts of India?
- 1. Arsenic
- 2. Sorbitol
- 3. Fluoride
- 4. Formaldehyde
- 5. Uranium
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 3 only
- (b) 2, 4 and 5 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 5 only
Q82
Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among
- (a) NO, O and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight 2 3
- (b) CO, O and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight 2
- (c) CO, CO and NO at low temperature 2 2
- (d) high concentration of NO, O and CO in the evening 2 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) NO, O and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight 2 3
Q83
Consider the following fauna and India:
- 1. Gharial
- 2. Leatherback turtle
- 3. Swamp deer
Which of the above is/are endangered?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 3 only
- (c) 1, 2 and 3
- (d) None
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3
Q84
Consider the following:
- 1. Star tortoise
- 2. Monitor lizard
- 3. Pygmy hog
- 4. Spider monkey
Which of the above are naturally found in India?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q85
Consider the following animals:
- 1. Sea cow
- 2. Sea horse
- 3. Sea lion
Which of the above is/are mammal/mammals?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 1 and 3 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only
Q86
In which of the following States is lion-tailed macaque found in its natural habitat?
- 1. Tamil Nadu
- 2. Kerala
- 3. Karnataka
- 4. Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
- (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
Q87
With reference to the usefulness of the by- products of the sugar industry, which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. Bagasse can be used as biomass fuel for the generation of energy.
- 2. Molasses can be used as one of the feedstocks for the production of synthetic chemical fertilisers.
- 3. Molasses can be used for the production of ethanol.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only
Q88
Consider the following organisms:
- 1. Agaricus
- 2. Nostoc
- 3. Spirogyra
Which of the above is/are used as biofertilizer/biofertilizers?
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 only
- (c) 2 and 3 only
- (d) 3 only
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 only
Science & Technology
Q89
The efforts to detect the existence of Higgs boson particles have become frequent news in the recent past. What is /are the importance/importance of discovering this particle?
- 1. It will enable us to understand why elementary particles have mass.
- 2. It will enable us in the near future to develop the technology to transfer matter from one point to another without traversing the physical space between them.
- 3. It will enable us to create better fuels for nuclear fission.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
Q90
Mycorrhizal biotechnology has been used in rehabilitating degraded sites because mycorrhiza enables the plants to
- 1. Resist drought and increase the absorptive area
- 2. Tolerate extremes of pH
- 3. Resist disease infestation
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q91
Recombinant DNA technology (Genetic Engineering) allows genes to be transferred
- 1. across different species of plants
- 2. from animals to plants
- 3. from microorganisms to higher organisms
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q92
Ball bearings are used in bicycles, cars, etc. because
- (a) The actual area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
- (b) The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is increased
- (c) The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced
- (d) None of the statements is correct
Show answer
Answer: (c) The effective area of contact between the wheel and axle is reduced
Q93
Consider the following phenomena:
- 1. Size of the sun at dusk
- 2. Colour of the sun at dawn
- 3. Moon being visible at dawn
- 4. Twinkle of stars in the sky
- 5. Polestar being visible in the sky
Which of the above are optical illusions?
- (a) 1, 2 and 3
- (b) 3, 4 and 5
- (c) 1, 2 and 4
- (d) 2, 3 and 5
Show answer
Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4
Q94
Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain.
Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
- 1. Dispersion
- 2. Refraction
- 3. Internal reflection
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 and 2 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3
Q95
The known forces of nature can be divided into four classes, viz., gravity, electromagnetism, weak nuclear force and strong nuclear force. With reference to them, which one of the following statements is not correct?
- (a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
- (b) Electromagnetism act only on particles with an electric charge
- (c) Weak nuclear force causes radioactivity
- (d) Strong nuclear force holds protons and neutrons inside the nucleus of an atom
Show answer
Answer: (a) Gravity is the strongest of the four
Q96
Fruits stored in a cold chamber exhibit longer storage life because
- (a) exposure to sunlight is prevented
- (b) concentration dioxide in the is increased of carbon environment
- (c) rate of respiration is decreased
- (d) there is an increase in humidity
Show answer
Answer: (c) rate of respiration is decreased
Q97
Many transplanted seedlings do not grow because
- (a) the new soil does not contain favourable minerals
- (b) most of the root hairs grip the new soil too hard
- (c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
- (d) leaves get damaged during transplantation
Show answer
Answer: (c) most of the root hairs are lost during transplantation
Q98
Which of the following statements is/are correct?
- 1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy.
- 2. Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium.
- 3. Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (a) 1 only
Q99
Which of the following diseases can be transmitted from one person to another through tattooing?
- 1. Chikungunya
- 2. Hepatitis B
- 3. HIV-AIDS
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only
Q100
Consider the following minerals
- 1. Calcium
- 2. Iron
- 3. Sodium
Which of the minerals given above is/are required by the human body for the contraction of muscles?
- (a) 1 only
- (b) 2 and 3 only
- (c) 1 and 3 only
- (d) 1, 2 and 3
Show answer
Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3