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UPSC CSE Prelims 2014 · GS Paper 1

Prelims 2014 questions with answer key

100 questions, grouped by subject (not in the exam booklet's order). Attempt each one before tapping "Show answer".

  1. Ancient India

  2. Q1

    Which of the following Kingdoms were associated with the life of the Buddha?

    • 1. Avanti
    • 2. Gandhara
    • 3. Kosala
    • 4. Magadha

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
    2. (b) 2 and 4
    3. (c) 3 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 3 and 4 only

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  3. Medieval India

  4. Q2

    Ibadat Khana at Fatehpur Sikri was

    1. (a) the mosque for the use of the Royal Family
    2. (b) Akbar’s private prayer chamber
    3. (c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions
    4. (d) the room in which the nobles belonging to different religions gathered to discuss religious affairs
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) the hall in which Akbar held discussions with scholars of various religions

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  5. Q3

    In medieval India, the designations 'Mahattara' and 'Pattakila' were used for

    1. (a) military officers
    2. (b) village headmen
    3. (c) specialists in Vedic rituals
    4. (d) chiefs of craft guilds
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) village headmen

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  6. Modern India

  7. Q4

    What was/were the object/objects of Queen Victoria’s Proclamation (1858)?

    • 1. To disclaim any intention to annex Indian States.
    • 2. To place the Indian administration under the British Crown.
    • 3. To regulate East India Company’s trade with India.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

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  8. Q5

    The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until

    1. (a) the First World War when Indian troops were needed by the British and the partition was ended.
    2. (b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911.
    3. (c) Gandhiji launched his Civil Disobedience Movement.
    4. (d) the Partition of India in 1947 when East Bengal became East Pakistan.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) King George V abrogated Curzon’s Act at the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911.

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  9. Q6

    The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a:

    1. (a) Revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco
    2. (b) Nationalist organization operating from Singapore
    3. (c) Militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
    4. (d) Communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco

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  10. Q7

    The 1929 Session of Indian National Congress is of significance in the history of the Freedom Movement because the

    1. (a) attainment of Self-Government was declared as the objective of the Congress
    2. (b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress
    3. (c) Non-Cooperation Movement was launched
    4. (d) decision to participate in the Round Table Conference in London was taken
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) attainment of Poorna Swaraj was adopted as the goal of the Congress

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  11. Q8

    The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to

    1. (a) solve the problem of minorities in India
    2. (b) give effect to the Independence Bill
    3. (c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan
    4. (d) enquire into the riots in East Bengal
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) delimit the boundaries between India and Pakistan

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  12. Art & Culture

  13. Q9

    With reference to the cultural history of India, the term 'Panchayatan' refers to

    1. (a) an assembly of village elders
    2. (b) a religious sect
    3. (c) a style of temple construction
    4. (d) an administrative functionary
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) a style of temple construction

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  14. Q10

    With reference to the Indian history of art and culture, consider the following pairs:

    Famous work of sculptureSite
    1. A grand image of Buddha's Mahaparinirvana with numerous celestial musicians above and the sorrowful figures of his followers belowAjanta
    2. A huge image of Varaha Avatar (boar incarnation) of Vishnu, as he rescues Goddess Earth from the deep and chaotic waters, sculpted on rockMount Abu
    3. “Arjuna's Penance”/ “Descent of Ganga” sculpted on the surface of huge bouldersMamallapuram

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

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  15. Q11

    The national motto of India, ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below the Emblem of India is taken from

    1. (a) Katha Upanishad
    2. (b) Chandogya Upanishad
    3. (c) Aitareya Upanishad
    4. (d) Mundaka Upanishad
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Mundaka Upanishad

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  16. Q12

    Consider the following statements:

    • 1. ‘Bijak’ is a composition of the teachings of Saint Dadu Dayal.
    • 2. The Philosophy of PushtiMarg was propounded by Madhavacharya.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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  17. Q13

    Consider the following pairs:

    1. GarbaGujarat
    2. MohiniattamOdisha
    3. YakshaganaKarnataka

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

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  18. Q14

    With reference to the famous Sattriya dance, consider the following statements:

    • 1. Sattriya is a combination of music, dance and drama.
    • 2. It is a centuries-old living tradition of Vaishnavites of Assam.
    • 3. It is based on classical Ragas and Talas of devotional songs composed by Tulsidas, Kabir and Mirabai.

    Which of the statements above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 1 and 2 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

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  19. Q15

    Which one of the following pairs does not form part of the six systems of Indian Philosophy?

    1. (a) Mimamsa and Vedanta
    2. (b) Nyaya and Vaisheshika
    3. (c) Lokayata and Kapalika
    4. (d) Sankhya and Yoga
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Lokayata and Kapalika

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  20. Q16

    Every year, a month-long ecologically important campaign/ festival is held during which certain communities/tribes plant saplings of fruit-bearing trees.

    Which of the following are such communities/tribes?

    1. (a) Bhutia and Lepcha
    2. (b) Gond and Korku
    3. (c) Irula and Toda
    4. (d) Sahariya and Agariya
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Gond and Korku

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  21. Q17

    A community of people called Manganiyars is well-known for their

    1. (a) Martial arts in North-East India
    2. (b) Musical tradition in North-West India
    3. (c) Classical vocal music in South India
    4. (d) Pietra dura tradition in Central India
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Musical tradition in North-West India

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  22. Q18

    With reference to Buddhist history, tradition and culture in India, consider the following pairs:

    Famous ShrineLocation
    1. Tabo monastery and temple complexSpiti Valley
    2. Lhotsava Lhakhang temple, NakoZanskar Valley
    3. Alchi temple complexLadakh

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

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  23. Q19

    With reference to India's culture and tradition, what is ‘Kalaripayattu'?

    1. (a) It is an ancient Bhakti cult of Shaivism still prevalent in some parts of South India
    2. (b) It is an ancient style bronze and brass work still found in southern part of Coromandel area
    3. (c) It is an ancient form of dance-drama and a living tradition in the northern part of Malabar
    4. (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) It is an ancient martial art and a living tradition in some parts of South India

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  24. Q20

    Chaitra 1 of the national calendar based on the Saka Era corresponds to which one of the following dates of the Gregorian calendar in a normal year of 365 days?

    1. (a) 22nd March (or 21st March)
    2. (b) 15th May (or 16th May)
    3. (c) 31st March (or 30th March)
    4. (d) 21st April (or 20th April)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 22nd March (or 21st March)

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  25. Q21

    Consider the following languages

    • 1. Gujarati
    • 2. Kannada
    • 3. Telugu

    Which of the above has/have been declared as 'Classical Language / Languages' by the Government?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

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  26. World Geography

  27. Q22

    Which of the following phenomena might have influenced the evolution of organisms?

    • 1. Continental drift
    • 2. Glacial cycles

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

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  28. Q23

    The seasonal reversal of winds is the typical characteristic of:

    1. (a) Equatorial climate
    2. (b) Mediterranean climate
    3. (c) Monsoon climate
    4. (d) All of the above climates
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Monsoon climate

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  29. Q24

    Turkey is located between

    1. (a) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
    2. (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
    3. (c) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
    4. (d) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea

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  30. Q25

    What is the correct sequence of occurrence of the following cities in South-East Asia as one proceeds from south to north?

    • 1. Bangkok
    • 2. Hanoi
    • 3. Jakarta
    • 4. Singapore

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 4-2-1-3
    2. (b) 3-2-4-1
    3. (c) 3-4-1-2
    4. (d) 4-3-2-1
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 3-4-1-2

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  31. Indian Geography

  32. Q26

    Consider the following pairs:

    HillsRegion
    1. Cardamom HillsCoromandel Coast
    2. Kaimur HillsKonkan Coast
    3. Mahadeo HillsCentral India
    4. Mikir HillsNorth-East India

    Which of the above pairs are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 and 2
    2. (b) 2 and 3
    3. (c) 3 and 4
    4. (d) 2 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 3 and 4

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  33. Q27

    What are the benefits of implementing the ‘Integrated Watershed Development Programme’?

    • 1. Prevention of soil runoff
    • 2. Linking the country’s perennial rivers with seasonal rivers
    • 3. Rainwater harvesting and recharge of groundwater table
    • 4. Regeneration of natural vegetation

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 2, 3 and 4 only
    3. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

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  34. Q28

    Consider the following rivers:

    • 1. Barak
    • 2. Lohit
    • 3. Subansiri

    Which of the above flows/flow through Arunachal Pradesh?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

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  35. Q29

    In India, the problem of soil erosion is associated with which of the following?

    • 1. Terrace cultivation
    • 2. Deforestation
    • 3. Tropical climate

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only

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  36. Q30

    If you travel through the Himalayas, you are likely to see which of the following plants are naturally growing there?

    • 1. Oak
    • 2. Rhododendron
    • 3. Sandalwood

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

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  37. Q31

    Which of the following have coral reefs?

    • 1. Andaman and Nicobar Islands
    • 2. Gulf of Kachchh
    • 3. Gulf of Mannar
    • 4. Sunderbans

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
    2. (b) 2 and 4 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only

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  38. Q32

    Consider the following pairs:

    RegionWell-known for the production of
    1. KinnaurAreca nut
    2. MewatMango
    3. CoromandelSoya bean

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) None

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  39. Q33

    Consider the following pairs:

    Programme/Project Ministry

    • 1. Drought-Prone Area Programme Ministry of Agriculture
    • 2. Desert Development Programme Ministry of Environment and Forests
    • 3. National Watershed Development Project for Rainfed Areas Ministry of Rural Development

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) None

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  40. Q34

    In the context of food and nutritional security of India, enhancing the 'Seed Replacement Rates' of various crops helps in achieving the food production targets of the future. But what is/are the constraints/constraints in its wider/greater implementation?

    • 1. There is no National Seeds Policy in place.
    • 2. There is no participation of private sector seed companies in the supply of quality seeds of vegetables and planting materials of horticultural crops.
    • 3. There is a demand-supply gap regarding quality seeds in case of low value and high-volume crops.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 3 only

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  41. Q35

    With reference to 'Changpa' community of India, consider the following statements:

    • 1. They live mainly in the State of Uttarakhand.
    • 2. They rear the Pashmina goats that yield fine wool.
    • 3. They are kept in the category of Scheduled Tribes.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

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  42. Q36

    Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the 'Ten Degree Channel'?

    1. (a) Andman and Nicobar
    2. (b) Nicobar and Sumatra
    3. (c) Maldives and Lakshadweep
    4. (d) Sumatra and Java
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Andman and Nicobar

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  43. Q37

    Consider the following towns of India:

    • 1. Bhadrachalam
    • 2. Chanderi
    • 3. Kancheepuram
    • 4. Karnal

    Which of the above are famous for the production of traditional sarees/fabric?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 3 and 4 only
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

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  44. Q38

    Consider the following pairs:

    1. Dampa Tiger ReserveMizoram
    2. Gumti Wildlife SanctuarySikkim
    3. Saramati PeakNagaland

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

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  45. Q39

    Consider the following pairs:

    National HighwayCities connected
    1. NH 4Chennai and Hyderabad
    2. NH 6Mumbai and Kolkata
    3. NH 15Ahmedabad and Jodhpur

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) None

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  46. Polity & Governance

  47. Q40

    Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which

    • 1. A Constitutional Government is one which places the effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority.
    • 2. Places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only

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  48. Q41

    In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the:

    1. (a) Preamble of the Constitution
    2. (b) Directive Principles of State Policy
    3. (c) Fundamental Duties
    4. (d) Ninth Schedule
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Directive Principles of State Policy

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  49. Q42

    Which one of the Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding the anti-defection?

    1. (a) Second Schedule
    2. (b) Fifth Schedule
    3. (c) Eighth Schedule
    4. (d) Tenth Schedule
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Tenth Schedule

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  50. Q43

    Which of the following committees is the largest Committee of the Parliament?

    1. (a) The Committee on Public Accounts
    2. (b) The Committee on Estimates
    3. (c) The Committee on Public Undertakings
    4. (d) The Committee on Petitions
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The Committee on Estimates

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  51. Q44

    Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India:

    • 1. There is no mention of No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India.
    • 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

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  52. Q45

    Which of the following is/are the functions/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat?

    • 1. Preparations of agenda for Cabinet Meetings
    • 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Meetings
    • 3. Allocations of financial resources to the Ministers

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 2 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

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  53. Q46

    Which of the following are the discretionary powers of the Governor of a State?

    • 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule.
    • 2. Appointing the Ministers.
    • 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India.
    • 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government.

    Select the answers using the codes given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 1 and 3 only
    3. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

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  54. Q47

    Consider the following statements:

    • 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business.
    • 2. All executive actions of the government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only

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  55. Q48

    The power to increase the number of Judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

    1. (a) The President of India
    2. (b) The Parliament
    3. (c) The Chief Justice of India
    4. (d) The Law Commission
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The Parliament

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  56. Q49

    The power of Supreme Court of India to decide dispute between the centre and states fall under its:

    1. (a) Advisory jurisdiction
    2. (b) Appellate jurisdiction
    3. (c) Original jurisdiction
    4. (d) Writ jurisdiction
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Original jurisdiction

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  57. International Relations

  58. Q50

    With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements:

    • 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009.
    • 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only

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  59. Q51

    Consider the following countries:

    • 1. Denmark
    • 2. Japan
    • 3. Russian Federation
    • 4. United Kingdom
    • 5. United States of America

    Which of the above are the members of the ‘Arctic Council’?

    1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
    2. (b) 2, 3 and 4
    3. (c) 1, 4 and 5
    4. (d) 1, 3 and 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 3 and 5

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  60. Q52

    Consider the following pairs:

    Region often in newsCountry
    1. ChechnyaRussian Federation
    2. DarfurMali
    3. Swat ValleyIraq

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only

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  61. Economy

  62. Q53

    The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’ sometimes appearing in news, are used in relation to:

    1. (a) Banking operations
    2. (b) Communication networking
    3. (c) Military strategies
    4. (d) Supply and demand of agricultural products
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Banking operations

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  63. Q54

    If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, it will

    1. (a) decrease the consumption expenditure in the economy.
    2. (b) increase the tax collection of the Government
    3. (c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy
    4. (d) increase the total savings in the economy
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) increase the investment expenditure in the economy

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  64. Q55

    In the context of the Indian economy, which of the following is/are the purpose/purposes of ‘Statutory Reserve Requirements’?

    • 1. To enable the Central Bank to control the amount of advances the banks can create.
    • 2. To make the people’s deposits with banks safe and liquid.
    • 3. To prevent the commercial banks from making excessive profits.
    • 4. To force the banks to have sufficient vault cash to meet their day-to-day requirements.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 1 and 2 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only

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  65. Q56

    What is/are the facility/facilities the beneficiaries can get from the services of Business Correspondent (Bank Saathi) in branchless areas?

    • 1. It enables the beneficiaries to draw their subsidies and social security benefits in their villages.
    • 2. It enables the beneficiaries in the rural areas to make deposits and withdrawals.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

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  66. Q57

    What does venture capital mean?

    1. (a) A short-term capital provided to industries
    2. (b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs
    3. (c) Funds provided to industries at times of incurring losses
    4. (d) Funds provided for replacement and renovation of industries
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) A long-term start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs

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  67. Q58

    The sales tax you pay while purchasing a toothpaste is:

    1. (a) tax imposed by the Central Government
    2. (b) tax imposed by the Central Government but collected by the State Government
    3. (c) tax imposed by the State Government but collected by Central Government
    4. (d) tax imposed and collected by State Government
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) tax imposed and collected by State Government

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  68. Q59

    With reference to the Union Budget, which of the following is/are covered under Non-Plan Expenditure?

    • 1. Defence Expenditure
    • 2. Interest Payments
    • 3. Salaries and pensions
    • 4. Subsidies

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1, 2, 3 and 4

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  69. Q60

    With reference to Balance of Payments, which of the following constitutes/constitute the Current Account?

    • 1. Balance of Trade
    • 2. Foreign Assets
    • 3. Balance of Invisibles
    • 4. Special Drawing Rights

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

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  70. Q61

    Which of the following organizations brings out the publication known as ‘World Economic Outlook’?

    1. (a) The International Monetary Fund
    2. (b) The United Nations Development Programme
    3. (c) The World Economic Forum
    4. (d) The World Bank
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) The International Monetary Fund

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  71. Q62

    The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan is:

    1. (a) inclusive growth and poverty reduction
    2. (b) inclusive and sustainable growth
    3. (c) sustainable and inclusive growth to reduce unemployment
    4. (d) faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) faster, sustainable, and more inclusive growth

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  72. Q63

    Which of the following are associated with ‘Planning’ in India?

    • 1. The Finance Commission
    • 2. The National Development Council
    • 3. The Union Ministry of Rural Development
    • 4. The Union Ministry of Urban Development
    • 5. The Parliament

    Select the correct answer using the code given below.

    1. (a) 1, 2 and 5 only
    2. (b) 1, 3 and 4 only
    3. (c) 2 and 5 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 2 and 5 only

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  73. Environment & Ecology

  74. Q64

    Consider the following pairs:

    WetlandsConfluence of rivers
    1. Harike WetlandsConfluence of Beas and Satluj/Sutlej
    2. Keoladeo Ghana National ParkConfluence of Banas and Chambal
    3. Kolleru LakeConfluence of Musi and Krishna

    Which of the above pairs is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only

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  75. Q65

    Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth?

    • 1. Volcanic action
    • 2. Respiration
    • 3. Photosynthesis
    • 4. Decay of organic matter

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 3 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Report an error

  76. Q66

    Consider the following:

    • 1. Bats
    • 2. Bears
    • 3. Rodents The phenomenon of hibernation can be observed in which of the above kinds of animals?
    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) Hibernation cannot be observed in any of the above
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

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  77. Q67

    Which one of the following is the correct sequence of a food chain?

    1. (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings
    2. (b) Crustaceans-Diatoms-Herrings
    3. (c) Diatoms-Herrings-Crustaceans
    4. (d) Crustaceans-Herrings-Diatoms
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Diatoms-Crustaceans-Herrings

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  78. Q68

    Among the following organisms, which one does not belong to the class of the other three?

    1. (a) Crab
    2. (b) Mite
    3. (c) Scorpion
    4. (d) Spider
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Crab

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  79. Q69

    Which one of the following is the process involved in photosynthesis?

    1. (a) Potential energy is released to form free energy.
    2. (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.
    3. (c) Food is oxidised to release carbon dioxide and water.
    4. (d) Oxygen is taken, and carbon dioxide and water vapour are given out.
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) Free energy is converted into potential energy and stored.

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  80. Q70

    Brominated flame retardants are used in many household products like mattresses and upholstery. Why is there some concern about their use?

    • 1. They are highly resistant to degradation in the environment.
    • 2. They are able to accumulate in humans and animals.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

    Report an error

  81. Q71

    There is some concern regarding the nanoparticles of some chemical elements that are used by the industry in the manufacture of various products. Why?

    • 1. They can accumulate in the environment and contaminate water and soil.
    • 2. They can enter the food chains.
    • 3. They can trigger the production of free radicals.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Report an error

  82. Q72

    Which of the following are some important pollutants released by the steel industry in India?

    • 1. Oxides of sulphur
    • 2. Oxide of nitrogen
    • 3. Carbon monoxide
    • 4. Carbon dioxide

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1, 3 and 4 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

    Report an error

  83. Q73

    With reference to Neem tree, consider the following statements:

    • 1. Neem oil can be used as a pesticide to control the proliferation of some species of insects and mites.
    • 2. Neem seeds are used in the manufacture of biofuels and hospital detergents.
    • 3. Neem oil has applications in the pharmaceutical industry.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

    Report an error

  84. Q74

    Other than poaching, what are the possible reasons for the decline in the population of Ganga River Dolphins?

    • 1. Construction of dams and barrages on rivers.
    • 2. Increase in the population of crocodiles in rivers.
    • 3. Getting trapped in fishing nets accidentally.
    • 4. Use of synthetic fertilisers and other agricultural chemicals in crop fields in the vicinity of rivers.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 3 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1, 3 and 4 only

    Report an error

  85. Q75

    If you walk through the countryside, you are likely to see some birds stalking alongside the cattle to seize the insects disturbed by their movement through grasses. Which one of the following is/ are such bird/birds?

    • 1. Painted Stork
    • 2. Common Myna
    • 3. Black-necked Crane

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 3 only
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only

    Report an error

  86. Q76

    In India, cluster bean (Guar) is traditionally used as a vegetable or animal feed, but recently the cultivation of this has assumed significance. Which one of the following statements is correct in this context?

    1. (a) The oil extracted from seeds is used in the manufacture of biodegradable plastics
    2. (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas
    3. (c) The leaf extract of this plant has the properties of anti- histamines
    4. (d) It is a source of high quality biodiesel
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) The gum made from its seeds is used in the extraction of shale gas

    Report an error

  87. Q77

    If a wetland of international importance is brought under the 'Montreux Record', what does it imply?

    1. (a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.
    2. (b) The country in which the wetland is located should enact a law to prohibit any human activity within five kilometres from the edge of the wetland.
    3. (c) The survival of the wetland depends on the cultural practices and traditions of certain communities living in its vicinity and therefore the cultural diversity therein should not be destroyed.
    4. (d) It is given the status of 'World Heritage Site'.
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Changes in ecological character have occurred, are occurring or are likely to occur in the wetland as a result of human interference.

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  88. Q78

    With reference to 'Global Environment Facility', which of the following statements is/are correct?

    1. (a) It serves as a financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change'.
    2. (b) It undertakes scientific research on environmental issues at global level.
    3. (c) It is an agency under OECD to facilitate the transfer of technology and funds to underdeveloped countries with specific aims to protect their environment.
    4. (d) Both (a) and (b)
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) It serves as a financial mechanism for 'Convention on Biological Diversity' and 'United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change'.

    Report an error

  89. Q79

    With reference to a conservation organisation called 'Wetlands International', which of the following statements is/are correct?

    • 1. It is an intergovernmental organisation formed by the countries which are signatories to the Ramsar Convention.
    • 2. It works at the field level to develop and mobilise knowledge and use the practical experience to advocate for better policies.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 only

    Report an error

  90. Q80

    Consider the following statements regarding 'Earth Hour'

    • 1. It is an initiative of UNEP and UNESCO.
    • 2. It is a movement in which the participants switch off the lights for one hour on a certain day every year.
    • 3. It is a movement to raise awareness about climate change and the need to save the planet.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 and 3 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

    Report an error

  91. Q81

    Consider the following international agreements:

    • 1. The International Treaty on Plant Genetic Resources for Food and Agriculture.
    • 2. The United Nations Convention to Combat Desertification.
    • 3. The World Heritage Convention.

    Which of the above has/have a bearing on biodiversity?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Report an error

  92. Q82

    With reference to Bombay Natural History Society (BNHS), consider the following statements:

    • 1. It is an autonomous organisation under the Ministry of Environment and Forests.
    • 2. It strives to conserve nature through action-based research, education, and public awareness.
    • 3. It organises and conducts nature trails and camps for the general public.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 and 3 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

    Report an error

  93. Q83

    The most important strategy for the conservation of biodiversity together with traditional human life is the establishment of

    1. (a) Biosphere Reserves
    2. (b) Botanical gardens
    3. (c) National Parks
    4. (d) Wildlife Sanctuaries
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) Biosphere Reserves

    Report an error

  94. Q84

    Consider the following statements:

    • 1. Animal Welfare Board of India was established under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
    • 2. National Tiger Conservation Authority is a Statutory Body.
    • 3. The National Ganga River Basin Authority is chaired by the Prime Minister.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 2 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

    Report an error

  95. Q85

    With reference to 'Eco-Sensitive Zones', which of the following statements is/are correct?

    • 1. Eco-Sensitive Zones are the areas that are declared under the Wildlife (Protection) Act, 1972.
    • 2. The purpose of the declaration of Eco Sensitive Zones is to prohibit all kinds of human activities in those zones except agriculture.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Report an error

  96. Q86

    The scientific view is that the increase in global temperature should not exceed 2 0 C above pre-industrial level. If the global temperature increases beyond 3 0 C above the pre-industrial level, what can be its possible impact/impacts on the world?

    • 1. Terrestrial biosphere tends toward a net carbon source.
    • 2. Widespread coral mortality will occur.
    • 3. All the global wetlands will permanently disappear.
    • 4. Cultivation of cereals will not be possible anywhere in the world.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 1 and 2 only
    3. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

    Report an error

  97. Q87

    What is/are the significance of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as 'Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’?

    • 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.
    • 2. Drip irrigation can be practised very effectively in this.
    • 3. There is no application of chemical/inorganic fertilisers at all in this.
    • 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 3 only
    2. (b) 1, 2 and 4 only
    3. (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
    4. (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 1, 2 and 4 only

    Report an error

  98. Science & Technology

  99. Q88

    Consider the following techniques/phenomena:

    • 1. Budding and grafting in fruit plants
    • 2. Cytoplasmic male sterility
    • 3. Gene silencing

    Which of the above is/are used to create transgenic crops?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

    Report an error

  100. Q89

    With reference to Agni-IV Missile, which of the following statements is/are correct?

    • 1. It is a surface-to-surface missile.
    • 2. It is fuelled by liquid propellant only.
    • 3. It can deliver one-tonne nuclear warheads about 7500 km away.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only

    Report an error

  101. Q90

    Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?

    SpacecraftPurpose
    1. Cassini-HuygensOrbiting the Venus and transmitting data to the Earth
    2. MessengerMapping and investigating the Mercury
    3. Voyager 1 and 2Exploring the outer solar system

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

    Report an error

  102. Q91

    In addition to fingerprint scanning, which of the following can be used in the biometric identification of a person?

    • 1. Iris scanning
    • 2. Retinal scanning
    • 3. Voice recognition

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Report an error

  103. Q92

    With reference to technology for solar power production, consider the following statements:

    • 1. 'Photovoltaics' is a technology that generates electricity by direct conversion of light into electricity, while 'Solar Thermal' is a technology that utilises the Sun's rays to generate heat which is further used in the electricity generation process.
    • 2. Photovoltaics generates Alternating Current (AC), while Solar Thermal generates Direct Current (DC).
    • 3. India has a manufacturing base for Solar Thermal Technology but not for photovoltaics.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 only

    Report an error

  104. Q93

    Which of the following is/are the example/examples of chemical change?

    • 1. Crystallization of sodium chloride
    • 2. Melting of ice
    • 3. Souring of milk

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 3 only

    Report an error

  105. Q94

    Consider the following diseases

    • 1. Diphtheria
    • 2. Chickenpox
    • 3. Smallpox

    Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) 3 only

    Report an error

  106. Q95

    Consider the following statements:

    • 1. Maize can be used for the production of starch.
    • 2. Oil extracted from maize can be a feedstock for biodiesel.
    • 3. Alcoholic beverages can be produced by using maize.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 1 and 2 only
    3. (c) 2 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

    Report an error

  107. Q96

    Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding vegetative propagation of plants?

    • 1. Vegetative propagation produces a clonal population.
    • 2. Vegetative propagation helps in eliminating the virus.
    • 3. Vegetative propagation can be practised most of the year.

    Select the correct answer using the code given below:

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 and 3 only
    3. (c) 1 and 3 only
    4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
    Show answer

    Answer: (c) 1 and 3 only

    Report an error

  108. Q97

    Consider the following pairs:

    Vitamin DeficiencyDisease
    1. Vitamin CScurvy
    2. Vitamin DRickets
    3. Vitamin ENight blindness

    Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

    1. (a) 1 and 2 only
    2. (b) 3 only
    3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
    4. (d) None
    Show answer

    Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

    Report an error

  109. Q98

    Lichens, which are capable of initiating ecological succession even on a bare rock, are actually a symbiotic association of

    1. (a) algae and bacteria
    2. (b) algae and fungi
    3. (c) bacteria and fungi
    4. (d) fungi and mosses
    Show answer

    Answer: (b) algae and fungi

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  110. Current Affairs & GK

  111. Q99

    With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas', consider the following statements:

    • 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks.
    • 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far, no shale gas sources have been found.

    Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

    1. (a) 1 only
    2. (b) 2 only
    3. (c) Both 1 and 2
    4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Neither 1 nor 2

    Report an error

  112. Q100

    Recently, a series of uprisings of people referred to as 'Arab Spring' originally started from:

    1. (a) Egypt
    2. (b) Lebanon
    3. (c) Syria
    4. (d) Tunisia
    Show answer

    Answer: (d) Tunisia

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